0
$\begingroup$

My intuition is that you can't call a function that has not yet been defined, although I have yet to find a source confirming this.

Is this true?

Thanks, friends :)

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

5
$\begingroup$

Suppose you have two mutually recursive maps $f, g : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ defined by \begin{align*} f(n) &= \Phi(f, g, n), \\ g(n) &= \Psi(f, g, n) \end{align*} We may replace this with a single recursive map $h : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}$, where $h(n) = (f(n), g(n))$, so that $f(n) = \pi_1(h(n))$, $g(n) = \pi_2(h(n))$. Then the above recursive definition may be rewriten as $$ h(n) = (\Phi(\pi_1 \circ h, \pi_2 \circ h, n), \Psi(\pi_1 \circ h, \pi_2 \circ h, n)) $$ The above trick is very general and works in many situations. Regarding primitive recursion, we just have to verify that the passage between $f, g$ and $h$ preserves the primitive recursive nature of functions, which it does because pairing, projections and compositions are primitive recursive.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.