Recently I have been thinking about writing numbers using the digits $1,-1(=\bar{1}),0$, and combining them similarly as one would for binary representations. For example, $$(1\bar{1}0)_2 = 1\cdot 2^2+(-1)\cdot 2 + 0 =2.$$ I noticed that though this representation is in general not unique for every integer, we may dictate that the digits $1$ and $-1$ alternate in occurrence, like this: $$10\bar{1}001\bar{1}$$ then I was able to show that such representation is unique for each integer as long as we fix the last digit to be either $1$ or $\bar{1}$. Let's call each representation a $1$-rep ( or $\bar{1}$-rep) if it ends in $1$( or $\bar{1}$). I tried to write out the alternative binary representation for small $n$'s, and I seem to see some connections with the regular paper-folding sequence: the occasions where the representation with a smaller number of nonzero digits corresponds to a $\bar{1}$-rep follow the familiar sequence described in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regular_paperfolding_sequence.
My calculations for the representations
\begin{array}{c|c c c } n & Type-1 & Type-\bar{1} & Shorter Representation \\ \hline 1 & 1 & 1\bar{1} & 1 \\ 2 & 10 & 1\bar{1}0 & 1 \\ 3 & 1\bar{1}1 & 10\bar{1} & -1 \\ 4 & 100 & 1\bar{1}00 & 1 \\ 5 & 1\bar{1}01 & 1\bar{1}1\bar{1} & 1 \\ 6 & 1\bar{1}10 & 10\bar{1}0 & -1 \\ 7 & 10\bar{1}1 & 100\bar{1} & -1 \\ 8 & 1000 & 1\bar{1}000 & 1 \\ \end{array} In the "Shorter representation" column, we use 1 for Type-1 and -1 for Type-I.
How do I prove this?