I see this code sample in a certain unnamed vendor's documentation. It appears to load a script asynchronously, then invoke a function from it thereafter. I realize that the if-undefined check will prevent an overt error, but is this not totally incorrect?
I believe that in IE8/9 it will work properly but block execution until the LOADER_URL script loads and executes; and I believe in many other browsers that do support the async attrbute, this will simply result in the inline-block executing the code inside the if-block only part of the time. The documentation states "tags are asynchronous and do not slow the loading of your pages."
<script type="text/javascript" src="LOADER_URL" async="true"></script>
<script type="text/javascript">
if (typeof (OBJECT_DEFINED_IN_LOADER_URL) != "undefined") { OBJECT_DEFINED_IN_LOADER_URL.Load(false); }
</script>
Looking at an earlier version of their documentation, it did not have the suggestion of the async attribute and did not make this claim. Did some technical writer make a mistake and say "yeah, that'll work" without testing adequately in all browsers? In IE <= 9 it will work all the time. And since async code is uber-fun to debug ... maybe it worked for them ...
That's my suspicion :)
<br>after the<script>statement? xD