Why doesn't MySQL define a boolean data type?

Question

MySQL doesn't define a distinct boolean data type, opting instead to make BOOL and BOOLEAN aliases for TINYINT(1). Why is this so?

Community · Accepted Answer · 2017-05-23 11:53:22Z

6

It's because the SQL specification didn't define one until SQL:1999 and it's not enforced. MySQL's ahead of most of the pack just for allowing the keyword - MSSQL, DB2, and Oracle use BIT and some true/false constants to fake it.

(Basically it's for the same reason that, although the SQL spec states it's pronounced "ess queue ell," everyone I know just says "sequel" because we're lazy & understand the context.)

See also: Comparison of different SQL implementations

edited May 23, 2017 at 11:53

CommunityBot

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answered Mar 6, 2010 at 4:26

tadamson

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1 Comment

Nate Over a year ago

Great link. It explains the real reason: endless discussions about how to deal with NULLs. More than 15 years later only PostgreSQL really supports it. How crazy is that for such a commonly-requested data type?

Reed Copsey · Accepted Answer · 2010-03-06 01:58:36Z

2

If I understand your question correctly, it's because Boolean values in MySql are just constants aliased to 1 or 0, and depend on the underlying type being used.

answered Mar 6, 2010 at 1:58

Reed Copsey

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