You want the inverse of xor, (so xand?), which is bool(cond1) == bool(cond2). See the duplicate (with != inverted to ==). You can drop the bool() calls if both cond1 and cond2 are themselves boolean results.
@MartijnPieters: OK. The logic is correct; the question still asks about equality of both variables (both true or both false). Fill in the correct syntax for the language, whether that's =, ==, equals, or something else. :-)
@SamuelLiew: yes, which is nothing more than the inversion of XOR. So bool(a) != bool(b) (XOR) becomes bool(a) == bool(b). I do cover that in my comment.
if (cond1 = cond2)?xor, (soxand?), which isbool(cond1) == bool(cond2). See the duplicate (with!=inverted to==). You can drop thebool()calls if bothcond1andcond2are themselves boolean results.=,==,equals, or something else. :-)bool(a) != bool(b)(XOR) becomesbool(a) == bool(b). I do cover that in my comment.