Jesus says in Mtt 6:24(KJ21):
No man can serve two masters; for either he will hate the one and love the other, or else he will hold to the one and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.
The word 'mammon' originally referred to riches or material wealth in the Aramaic language and appeared in the New Testament as a term for worldly possessions that could be a source of temptation. Over time, especially during the Middle Ages, it became personified as a demon of greed and avarice, and a symbol of the corrupting influence of wealth(Courtesy: Google AI Overview)
Except for a few like YLT and WEB, all versions present the full word in lower case, implying that it is used as a Common Noun. Some versions substitute ' mammon' with 'money', ' wealth' etc.That said, why has the word remained un-translated in most versions , unlike some Aramaic verses like "Talitha Koumi " ( Mk 5:41) which are accompanied by vernacular translations ? Did the usage get influenced by the 'personification' that took place in the middle ages?Going by the Upper Case of the first letter 'M' used in YLT, it is evident that some Versions use the word as a Proper Noun.
PS: BHSE question How Should "Mammon" be Interpreted - Linguistically? does not address the question of the word remaining un-translated. Hence my question.











